Insights about US Deficits and the Impact on Bond Yields

Facts

  • Trump Administration is widely seen as likely to increase or maintain high fiscal deficits.

  • To assess the impact of large deficits on yields, it is important to look at the total debt in the economy,
    not just government debt.

    What matters for markets and the economy is how much collective new credit is being created, and the incentive and desire of investors to buy it.

  • Debt Supply & Demand amount would flow to Rate. If government spending increases, then it means debt supply increases (there would be more borrowing), pushing up rate to increase.

    High Borrowing -> High Rate -> Depressed the private borrowing.

    Low/Normal level of credit creation would otherwise drive down inflation.

Two Cases:

  • Bad Scenario: Push up Inflation.

    Total Debt/GDP increase (private and public debt / GDP) increase && Currency Weaken. Then Yield Curve would steepen, derived by long term rate increase, as nobody purchase the long term bond.

    Think about a graph with x-axis (term), y-axis (yield), and a upward sloping curve.

    Yield curve steepens.

  • Good Scenario (now the US situation): Do not drive up Inflation

    Under this case, no buyers are buying the long-term debts.

    Total Debt/GDP increases, but yield curve is flat. Public squeezes private investment. The increase in public debt does not increase private borrowing, so no extra purchasing resulted from households. Help relieve the inflation.

    Yield curve flattens.

  • Example:

    image-20241226150441535

    Now is the Good Scenario: The top-left figure shows the current credit creation in US is under normal level. Top-right figure shows that Public and Private debts are negative correlated. Public squeezes private, so total debt did not get up too much high.

    1980s: Top-left figure shows total debts went high; Top-right figure shows public and private were positively correlated. So, bottom-left figure shows inflation hikes.

    Bottom-right figure shows implicitly that the current long minus short term rate is at low level, imply that the yield curve is flat, consistent with our Good/Bad Scenario Rationale.

Supply & Supply Side of Debts

  • Supply Side: Currently, there are high public borrowing, and low private borrowing.

  • Demand Side:

    Due to previous QE, Debt yield is high for investors => that would be attractive to un-levered investors, because Debts still bring enough return and less risks, attractive to people.

    However, the levered investors fact different situation. As they hold debts already, high debt rate would become both their costs and returns.

  • The current real yield is about 2% in US, which is high relative to much of the rest of developed world. US nominal yields are at levels where the yield is attractive and diversifying relative to stocks allocation for those who need to supplement debts into their portfolio.

image-20241226153016940

Again, the current yield curve is flat. For leveraged investors, they have debts liability already. Returns and Costs of debts offset.

Reference

Bridge-Water

Our Thoughts on Large US Deficits and Their Impact on Bond Yields

Market Timing

Allocating assets into different asset classes may depend on the (1) risk aversion, (2) time horizon, (3) tax status. And the (4) market timing also matters.

image-20241217103720861

In other words, sensing the market timing would help you

  • allocate assets into different asset classes such as debts, equity;
  • be out of the market in the bad months, and get into the mkt in the good period.

Cost of Market Timing

  • Out at the wrong time. Miss the opportunity of growth, i.e..
  • Transaction Costs
  • Taxes

Market Timing Approaches

Non-financial indicators
  1. Spurious indicators that may seem to be correlated with the market but have no rational basis.
    • Though there is no reasoning, there may still have some statistical pattern. Do not ignore it.
    • Those indicators give a sense of direction.
  • Feel good indicators that measure how happy investors are feeling – presumably, happier individuals will bid up higher stock prices.
    • The problem is that those indicators provide contemporaneous or lagging status of the market, may lack of predictability compared with the leading indicators.
  • Hype indicators.
    • Still the contemporaneous problem. Those factors tell the correlation right now, but do not have predictive power.
    • Also, the abnormality can be tricky when the environment is shifting.
  • Technical indicators, such as price charts and trading volume.
    • Past prices (such as price reversals or momentum, January Indicator)

    Hard to say the momentum or the reversal could stay for years.

    • Trading Volume & Money Flow

    • Price increases that occur without much trading volume are viewed as less likely to carry over.

    • And, very heavy trading volume can also indicate the turning points in the markets.
    • The money flow is the difference between uptick volume and downtick volume. People find there are some predictability for longer periods, in that the equity markets overall show momentum.

    • Market Volatility

    • Empirical research finds some evidence between the volatility change and returns.

    • See the blue bar: In periods that volatility increase and the market return goes down. After that period, the market is predicted to be like volatility increase and market return goes up.

    • Purple bar: in periods of volatility decrease and market return increase, the following period may have less volatility decrease and still returns.

      image-20241217125050078

    • Other price and sentiment indicators

    • Chart Patterns: supports and resistance lines are used to determine when to move in and out of individual stocks.

    • Sentiment indicators: measure the mood of the market.
    • Trader sentiments
Mean Reversion indicators, where stocks and bonds are viewed as mis-priced if they trade outside what is viewed as a normal range.

That approach is based on the assumption that stock price would revert to the P/E, and debt return would revert back certain interest rate.

  • P/E (see figure below for the normal range of P/E ratio)

    If stock is above or below the normal P/E, then it is overvalued or undervalued. The median is around 16.

    The P/E might go abnormally high in recession, not only because (1) the stocks are overvalued, but also because (2) the earnings are dropped down during recession.

    image-20241217165657810

  • Rate performs similarly.

    \Delta Interest Rate_t = 0.0139 – 0.1456 InterestRate_{t-1}, where R^2=0.728. Coefficients are significant.

    The regression suggest two things:

    1. Change in interest rates in the period is negatively correlated with the level of rates at the end of each prior year.
    2. The speed shrinks. For every 1% increase in the level of current rate, the expected drop in interest rate in the next periods increases by 0.1456%.
Fundamentals

Using the fundamentals to predict market timing is to focus on macroeconomic variables such as interest rate, inflation and GNP growth and devise investing rules based upon the levels or changes in macro economic variables.

Two keys of using this approach. (to build up the logic chain of prediction)

  1. Get handle how the market reacts as macro econ fundamentals change.
  2. Get good predictions of changes in macro econ fundamentals.
  • Macro economic variables, such as the level of interest rate or the state of the econ cycle.

    There are some common sense that the following changes would indicate the increase in stock price:

    1. Buy when Treasury bill rates are low, will end up with growth of stock price.
    2. Buy when Treasury bond rates have dropped, will end up with growth of stock price.
    3. Buy GNP growth is strong, will end up with growth of stock price.

    However, empirical evidence shows the other way. For example, the table below shows T-bill rate drops or increases could both contribute to the increase in Annual returns.

    image-20241219094028735

Valuing the Market

Just as you can value individual stocks with intrinsic valuation (DCF) models and relative valuation (multiples) models, you can value the market as well. If the valuation is faithful, you can reply on it to predict the market timing.

  • Intrinsic valuation that apply to the mkt. <- depends on assumptions and inputs.

    Use the S&P500 price and the index’s dividends to do the DCF.

    INPUTs: (1) S&P500 price, 1257.64 at 2011(2) Dividends and buyback on the index amount over previous year, 53.96 (3) expected earning growth for the following 5 years, 6.95% (4) expected growth of the economy (set as risk free rate) 3.29%, (5) treasury bond rate, plus the market risk premium (set it yourself) 5% to get the cost of equity 3.29%+5%=8.29%. Then, do the DCF

    image-20241219123900630

  • Relative Valuation <- value a market relative to other market, or across years.

  • Other methods, such as run regression on P/E to T-bill to find correlation.

Does the Market Timing Work?

  • Mutual Fund Managers: constantly try to time the markets by changing the amount of cash that they hold in the fund. If expected bullish, then cash balances decreases, vice versa.

    They call timing the market as Tactical Asset Allocation, TAA.

    See figure below, empirical evidence shows they do predict the market by changing the cash position.

    image-20241219142907826

  • Investment Newsletter: often take bullish or bearish view about the market.

    There is continuity on Newsletter way. Investment newsletters that give bad advice on market timing are more likely to continue to give bad advice than are newsletters that gave good advice to continue giving good advice. In other words, it depend on the writer’s ability.

  • Market strategists: make forecast for the overall market.

  • Professor Market Timers provide advice, however, their decision works for very short time, and only work for private clients.

Market Timing Strategies

  1. Adjust Asset Allocation: change across asset classes
  2. Switch Investment Styles: change within asset classes but different styles, such as from growth to value.
  3. Sector Rotation: with in asset classes, but different sector.
  4. Market Speculation.

Market Timing Instruments

  1. Futures Contracts
  2. Options Contracts
  3. ETFs

Implications and Insights

Overall, it’s good summary and a Beginner’s Tutorial, but not include technical implementation method, instruction, or philosophy.

Do provide some inspirations.

Reference

https://pages.stern.nyu.edu/~adamodar/New_Home_Page/webcastinvphil.htm

The Interview about the Principles for Changing World Order

by Ray Dalio

Five Factors:

  1. Economy, Debt, Money, Market
  2. Internal Order or Disorder/Conflict
  3. External Order or Disorder (Power Rivalries)
  4. Acts of Nature (Impact of Climates)
  5. Technologies (the advance of productivity)

Cycles Factors, as the below three, generate the cycle. (, are marked by wars. Starting the cycle at the end of WW II.)

  1. Internal Order – Productivity increase
  2. Debt raises relative to Incomes. (Debt is money, and debt means more buying power.) Increase the gaps of wealth, -> Internal Conflicts start to emerge
  3. External Conflict:

Climates, and Technologies (Mans inventiveness, new technologies)


Apply those five factors into the current world.

  • The current Debt Climate condition:

    Currently,

    Private debt sectors (individuals) get more and more indebted.

    Public debt sector take on the debt, and the central bank is supporting that effort.

    On a cyclical basis, total debt relative to GDP continuing to rise near its high.

    Debt service cost (a function of interest rate) increase, and public sector takes the burden.

    Then, Public sector starts to get indebtedness.

    That is the short-term cycle.


The cycle for development, Ray considers there are four stages.

  1. A poor country that has no capital accumulation starts to recognise the poverty.

    Country gets money to get capital formation, and conduct infrastructure (such as build roads). Do not waste that money, and put money into productive uses.

  2. Mentality. As the country getting richer, it still think it is not rich enough, is still poor.

  3. The country keeps getting richer, and start to realise it do not have to work that hard, and start to enjoy the life.

  4. As there are less works, the country gets poor, but still think itself is rich. So start to borrow money.


How to create a portfolio.

  • has a diversified portfolio that is able to absorb risks and unforeseen.

  • The types of assets in the portfolio might include

    1. Inflation index bonds
    2. Gold
    3. Real Rates
    • Avoid the credit risk. (The above three are the government obligations, so less credit risks are there)
    • Such as, we short Inflation index bond and long Gold (we could avoid the credit risks, and diversify the portfolio with certain target)

CFA Learning Notes and Materials

11th April 2024

I have passed the CFA III level exam, and been granted the chart.

For any errates and insights, please free to contact to me.


Here below are my learning footprints for CFA level III. All files are converted to .html as you will find in the following . If you need the raw markdown codes, please move to my Github Repo.

P.S. there are typos and miswritten parts in the notes. Welcome to find me and help me update those mistakes. Or, probably I will update them if I fail the level III exam (in that I would review those notes). 🙂

Best Wishes
FZ

  1. CME
    P.S. BehaviouralFinance
  2. AssetAllocation
  3. Derivatives&Exchange
  4. Fixed-Income
  5. Equity
    P.S. Equity-Active
  6. Fixed-Income
  7. Alternatives
  8. PrivateWealthManagement
  9. InstitutionalInvestors
  10. TradingEvaluationManagerSelection
    P.S. TradingAdditional
  11. Ethics
    P.S. Ethics_from_Level_II_Code_n_Standards

Two Approaches for Forecasting Exchange Rate

The first approach is that analysts focus on flows of export and imports to establish what the net trade flows are and how large they are relative to the economy and other, potentially larger financing and investment flows. The approach also considers differences between domestic and foreign inflation rates that relate to the concept of purchasing power parity. Under PPP, the expected percentage change in the exchange rate should equal the difference between inflation rates. The approach also considers the sustainability of current account imbalances, reflecting the difference between national saving and investment.

The second approach is that the analysis focuses on capital flows and the degree of capital mobility. It assumes that capital seeks the highest risk-adjusted return. The expected changes in the exchange rate will reflect the differences in the respective countries’ assets’ characteristics such as relative short-term interest rates, term, credit, equity and liquidity premiums. The approach also considers hot money flows and the fact that exchange rates provide an across the board mechanism for adjusting the relative sizes of each country’s portfolio of assets.

Source by CFA reading materials

Dutch Disease

In Dutch Disease, certain sectors have enormous exports demand, which would drive the demand of currency for that country. Its currency appreciates. However, the rest sectors that may not have such huge amount of exports demand would also have to undergo an appreciation of currency. Export demands for goods and services in the rest sectors would decrease even severe.

The Impact of Balance of Payments Flows

As noted earlier, the parity conditions may be appropriate for assessing fair value for currencies over long horizons, but they are of little use as a real-time gauge of value. There have been many attempts to find a better framework for determining a currency’s short-run or long-run equilibrium value. Let’s now examine the influence of trade and capital flows.

A country’s balance of payments consists of its (1) current account as well as its (2) capital and (3) financial account. The official balance of payments accounts make a distinction between the “capital account” and the “financial account” based on the nature of the assets involved. For simplicity, we will use the term “capital account” here to reflect all investment/financing flows. Loosely speaking, the current account reflects flows in the real economy, which refers to that part of the economy engaged in the actual production of goods and services (as opposed to the financial sector). The capital account reflects financial flows. Decisions about trade flows (the current account) and investment/financing flows (the capital account) are typically made by different entities with different perspectives and motivations. Their decisions are brought into alignment by changes in market prices and/or quantities. One of the key prices—perhaps the key price—in this process is the exchange rate.

Countries that import more than they export will have a negative current account balance and are said to have current account deficits. Those with more exports than imports will have a current account surplus. A country’s current account balance must be matched by an equal and opposite balance in the capital account. Thus, countries with current account deficits must attract funds from abroad in order to pay for the imports (i.e., they must have a capital account surplus).

When discussing the effect of the balance of payments components on a country’s exchange rate, one must distinguish between short-term and intermediate-term influences on the one hand and longer-term influences on the other. Over the long term, countries that run persistent current account deficits (net borrowers) often see their currencies depreciate because they finance their acquisition of imports through the continued use of debt. Similarly, countries that run persistent current account surpluses (net lenders) often see their currencies appreciate over time.

However, investment/financing decisions are usually the dominant factor in determining exchange rate movements, at least in the short to intermediate term. There are four main reasons for this:

  • Prices of real goods and services tend to adjust much more slowly than exchange rates and other asset prices.
  • Production of real goods and services takes time, and demand decisions are subject to substantial inertia. In contrast, liquid financial markets allow virtually instantaneous redirection of financial flows.
  • Current spending/production decisions reflect only purchases/sales of current production, while investment/financing decisions reflect not only the financing of current expenditures but also the reallocation of existing portfolios.
  • Expected exchange rate movements can induce very large short-term capital flows. This tends to make the actualexchange rate very sensitive to the currency views held by owners/managers of liquid assets.

Current Account Imbalances and the Determination of Exchange Rates

Current account trends influence the path of exchange rates over time through several mechanisms:

  • The flow supply/demand channel
  • The portfolio balance channel
  • The debt sustainability channel

Let’s briefly discuss each of these mechanisms next.

The Flow Supply/Demand Channel

The flow supply/demand channel is based on a fairly simple model that focuses on the fact that purchases and sales of internationally traded goods and services require the exchange of domestic and foreign currencies in order to arrange payment for those goods and services. For example, if a country sold more goods and services than it purchased (i.e., the country was running a current account surplus), then the demand for its currency should rise, and vice versa. Such shifts in currency demand should exert upward pressure on the value of the surplus nation’s currency and downward pressure on the value of the deficit nation’s currency.

Hence, countries with persistent current account surpluses should see their currencies appreciate over time, and countries with persistent current account deficits should see their currencies depreciate over time. A logical question, then, would be whether such trends can go on indefinitely. At some point, domestic currency strength should contribute to deterioration in the trade competitiveness of the surplus nation, while domestic currency weakness should contribute to an improvement in the trade competitiveness of the deficit nation. Thus, the exchange rate responses to these surpluses and deficits should eventually help eliminate—in the medium to long run—the source of the initial imbalances.

The amount by which exchange rates must adjust to restore current accounts to balanced positions depends on a number of factors:

  • The initial gap between imports and exports
  • The response of import and export prices to changes in the exchange rate
  • The response of import and export demand to changes in import and export prices

If a country imports significantly more than it exports, export growth would need to far outstrip import growth in percentage terms in order to narrow the current account deficit. A large initial deficit may require a substantial depreciation of the currency to bring about a meaningful correction of the trade imbalance.

A depreciation of a deficit country’s currency should result in an increase in import prices in domestic currency terms and a decrease in export prices in foreign currency terms. However, empirical studies often find limited pass-through effects of exchange rate changes on traded goods prices. For example, many studies have found that for every 1% decline in a currency’s value, import prices rise by only 0.5%—and in some cases by even less—because foreign producers tend to lower their profit margins in an effort to preserve market share. In light of the limited pass-through of exchange rate changes into traded goods prices, the exchange rate adjustment required to narrow a trade imbalance may be far larger than would otherwise be the case.

Many studies have found that the response of import and export demand to changes in traded goods prices is often quite sluggish, and as a result, relatively long lags, lasting several years, can occur between (1) the onset of exchange rate changes, (2) the ultimate adjustment in traded goods prices, and (3) the eventual impact of those price changes on import demand, export demand, and the underlying current account imbalance.

The Portfolio Balance Channel

The second mechanism through which current account trends influence exchange rates is the so-called portfolio balance channel. Current account imbalances shift financial wealth from deficit nations to surplus nations. Countries with trade deficits will finance their trade with increased borrowing. This behaviour may lead to shifts in global asset preferences, which in turn could influence the path of exchange rates. For example, nations running large current account surpluses versus the United States might find that their holdings of US dollar–denominated assets exceed the amount they desire to hold in a portfolio context. Actions they might take to reduce their dollar holdings to desired levels could then have a profound negative impact on the dollar’s value.

“Shifts in Global Asset Preferences” means would alter the components of assets allocation in the portfolio.

The Debt Sustainability Channel

The third mechanism through which current account imbalances can affect exchange rates is the so-called debt sustainability channel. According to this mechanism, there should be some upper limit on the ability of countries to run persistently large current account deficits. If a country runs a large and persistent current account deficit over time, eventually it will experience an untenable rise in debt owed to foreign investors. If such investors believe that the deficit country’s external debt is rising to unsustainable levels, they are likely to reason that a major depreciation of the deficit country’s currency will be required at some point to ensure that the current account deficit narrows significantly and that the external debt stabilises at a level deemed sustainable.

The existence of persistent current account imbalances will tend to alter the market’s notion of what exchange rate level represents the true, long-run equilibrium value. For deficit nations, ever-rising net external debt levels as a percentage of GDP should give rise to steady (but not necessarily smooth) downward revisions in market expectations of the currency’s long-run equilibrium value. For surplus countries, ever-rising net external asset levels as a percentage of GDP should give rise to steady upward revisions of the currency’s long-run equilibrium value. Hence, one would expect currency values to move broadly in line with trends in debt and/or asset accumulation.

Reference

CFA Readings

Value at Risk & Expected Shortfalls

Value at Risk – VaR

VaR is a probability statement about the potential change in the value of a portfolio.

Notation

$$Porb(x\leq VaR(X))= 1-c$$

$$ Prob\bigg(z \leq \frac{VaR(X)-\mu}{\sigma}\bigg)=1-c $$

  • $c$ – confidence interval, i.e. $c=99\%$. Then $1-c = 1\% $
  • $\mu$ and $\sigma$ are for $X$.
    • For Example, if X is yearly return, then \mu_{252days}=252\cdot\mu_{1day}, and \sigma_{252days}=\sqrt{252}\cdot\sigma_{1day}
  • $x$ here is the return. So, $c$ is the confidence interval, i.e. 99%.
    • VaR focus on the tail risks. If x stands for return, then tail risk is on the left tail, z_{1-c}.
  • If x is the loss, the tail risk is on the right tail. z_c

$$VaR(X) = \mu + \sigma\cdot \Phi^{-1}(1-c)$$

$$VaR(X) = \mu + \sigma\cdot z_{1-c}$$

  • I.E.

​ If c=99\%, then 1-c=1\%, so z_{1-c}=z_{0.01} \approx -2.33

VaR(X) = \mu – 2.33\cdot \sigma

P.S.

​ The unit of VaR is the amount of loss, so it should be monetary amount. For example, if the total amount of portfolio is USD 1 million, then VaR = \$1m \cdot (\mu – 2.33\cdot \sigma).

Loss Distribution

Remember X is a distribution of loss. If we know the distribution of Portfolio Return R, R\sim N(\mu, \sigma^2), then what is the dist for X?

$$X \sim N(-\mu, \sigma^2)$$

Right! Loss is just the negative return. Also, the volatility would not be affected by plus / minus.

Expected Shortfall (ES)

Expected Shortfall states the Expected Loss during time T conditional on the loss being greater than the c^{th} percentile of the loss distribution.

Notation

$$ ES_c (X) = \mathbb{E}\bigg[ X|X\leq VAR_c(X) \bigg] $$

  • Be attention here, X is a r.v., and x stands for return here! while the only variable in the ES_c(X) is c, the confidence level, instead of X.
  • $c$ is the confidence level, i.e. $c$ = 99%.
  • If x stands for return, then the VaR is the left-tail, z_{1-c}.

$$ ES_c (X) = \mathbb{E}\bigg[ X|X\geq VAR_c(X) \bigg] $$

  • If x stands for loss (, which is the negative of return ), then the VaR is the right-tail, z_{c}.

Derivation

Notation Form

Consider, x is the return, then ES_c (X) = \mathbb{E}\bigg[ X|X\leq VAR_c(X) \bigg], and VaR_c(x)= \mu + z_{1-c}\sigma, where c is the confidence level c=99\% for example.

$$ES_c(X) = \frac{\int_{-\infty}^{VaR} xf(x)dx }{\int_{-\infty}^{VaR} f(x)dx } = \frac{\int_{-\infty}^{VaR} x \phi(x)dx }{\int_{-\infty}^{VaR} \phi(x)dx } =\frac{\int_{-\infty}^{VaR} x \phi(x)dx }{ \Phi(VaR) – \Phi(-\infty)} $$

$$= \frac{1}{ \Phi(VaR) – \Phi(-\infty) }\int_{-\infty}^{VaR}x \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} dx $$

Replace z = \frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}, then x = \mu + z \sigma, and dx = \sigma dz

$$ = \frac{1}{\Phi(VaR)} \int_{-\infty}^{VaR}(\mu + z\sigma) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}}\sigma dz $$

$$ = \frac{1}{\Phi(VaR)}\mu \int_{-\infty}^{VaR}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi }} e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}} dz + \sigma^2\int_{-\infty}^{VaR} z \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}} dz $$

$$ = \frac{1}{\Phi(VaR)}\mu \Phi(VaR) – \frac{\sigma^2}{\Phi(VaR)}\int_{-\infty}^{VaR} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}} d(-\frac{z^2}{2}) $$

$$ = \mu – \frac{\sigma^2}{\Phi(VaR)} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}} \int_{-\infty}^{VaR} e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}} d(-\frac{z^2}{2}) $$

$$ = \mu – \frac{\sigma}{\Phi(VaR)} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi }} e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}} |_{-\infty}^{VaR} $$

$$ = \mu – \frac{\sigma}{\Phi(VaR)} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi }} e^{-\frac{VaR^2}{2}}= \mu – \frac{\sigma}{\Phi(VaR)} \phi(VaR)$$

Recall, VaR_c(x)= \mu + z_{1-c}\sigma, so \phi(VaR_c(x))= \phi(\mu + z_{1-c}\sigma) \leftrightarrow \phi(z_{1-c}) = \phi\bigg( \Phi^{-1}(1-c) \bigg), and \Phi(VaR_c(x))= \Phi(\mu + z_{1-c}\sigma) \leftrightarrow \phi(z_{1-c}) = \Phi\bigg( \Phi^{-1}(1-c) \bigg) = 1-c.

Thus,

$$ ES_c(X) =\mu – \frac{\sigma}{\Phi(VaR)} \phi(VaR)=\mu -\sigma \frac{\phi\big( \Phi^{-1}(1-c) \big)}{1-c}$$

VaR Form

we ‘sum up’ (integrate) the VaR from c to 1, conditional on 1-c.

$$ES_c(X) = \frac{1}{1-c} \int_c^1 VaR_u(X)du$$

$$ ES_c(X) = \frac{1}{1-c} \int_c^1 \bigg( \mu + \sigma\cdot \Phi^{-1}(1-u) \bigg) du $$

$$ =\mu + \frac{\sigma}{1-c} \int^1_c \Phi^{-1}(1-u) du $$

We let u = \Phi(Z), where Z \sim N(0,1). Then,

  • $du =d(\Phi(z)) =\phi(z) dz$.
  • $u\in (c,1)$, so $z = \Phi^{-1}(u)\in (z_c \ , \infty)$

Thus,

$$ ES_c(X) =\mu + \frac{\sigma}{1-c} \int^{\infty}_{z_c} \Phi^{-1}\big(1-\Phi(z)\big)\phi(z) dz $$

As 1-\Phi(z) = \Phi(-z)

$$ ES_c(X) =\mu + \frac{\sigma}{1-c} \int^{\infty}_{z_c} \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(-z))\phi(z) dz = \mu – \frac{\sigma}{1-c} \int^{\infty}_{z_c} z\phi(z) dz $$

$ \int_{z_c}^{\infty} z \phi(z)dz = \int_{z_c}^{\infty} z \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}}dz = -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{z_c}^{\infty} -e^{\frac{z^2}{2}}d(e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}})$

$=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{z_c^2}{2}}=\phi(z_c)=\phi\big(\Phi^{-1}(c)\big)$, bring it back to $ES_c(X)$

$$ES_c(X) = \mu – \sigma\frac{ \phi\big(\Phi^{-1}(c)\big)}{1-c}$$

Morden Portfolio Theory

  • $x$ – vector weights
  • $R$ – vector of all assets’ returns
  • $\mu = \mathbb{E}(R)$ – mean return of all assets
  • $\Sigma = \mathbb{E}\bigg[ (R-\mu)(R-\mu)^T \bigg]$ – var-cov matrix of all assets

So,

  • $\mu_x = x^T \mu$ – becomes a scalar now
  • $\sigma^2 = x^T \Sigma x$ – collapse to be a scalar

Optimisation

  • Maximise Expected Return s.t. volatility constraint.

$$ \max_{x} \mu_x \quad s.t. \quad \sigma_x \leq \sigma^* $$

  • Minimise Volatility s.t. return constraint.

$$ \min_{x} \sigma_x \quad s.t. \quad \mu_x \geq \mu^* $$

Portfolio Risk Measures

By definition, the loss of a portfolio is the negative of return, L(x) = -R(x).

The Loss distribution becomes the same normal distribution with x-axis reversed.

  • Volatility of Loss: \sigma(L(x)) = \sigma_x, the minus does not matter in the s.d.
  • Standard Deviation-based risk measure: =\mathbb{E}(L(x)) + cz_{c}\sigma(L(x)), x-axis is revered, so z_{1-c} for return becomes z_c for loss.
  • VaR: VaR_{\alpha}(x)=inf\bigg{ \mathscr{l}:Prob\big[ L(x)\leq \mathscr{l} \geq\big] \alpha \bigg}
  • Expected Shortfall: ES_{\alpha}(x) = \frac{1}{1-\alpha} \int_{\alpha}^1 VaR_u(x) du. In other form, ES_{\alpha}(x)=\mathbb{E}\bigg( L(x)| L(x)\geq VaR_{\alpha}(x) \bigg)

As R \sim N(\mu, \Sigma),

  • for our portfolio with weights x, mean = \mu, and \sigma_x = \sqrt{x^T \Sigma x}.
  • for the loss, mean = -\mu, and \sigma_x = \sqrt{x^T \Sigma x}.

Black and Scholes, 1973

See A bit Stochastic Calculus .

For,

$$ dS_t = \mu S_t \ dt +\sigma S_t \ dW_t $$

  • In calculating d f(S_t), we would get, (by Taylor Expansion)

$$ df(S_t) = \bigg( \frac{\partial f}{\partial t} + \frac{\partial f}{\partial S_t}\mu S_t +\frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial S_t^2}\sigma^2 S_t^2 \bigg)dt + \frac{\partial f}{\partial S_t}\sigma S_t \ dW_t $$

  • A Special Form of f(\cdot) is f(S) = log(S),

$$ d\ log(S_t) = \bigg( \mu – \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 \bigg)dt + \sigma \ dW_t $$


We get Y_t = log S_t is the price of a derivative security with respect to S_t and t and then,

$$ dY_t= \bigg( \frac{\partial Y_t}{\partial t} + \frac{\partial Y_t}{\partial S_t}\mu S_t +\frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2 Y_t}{\partial S_t^2}\sigma^2 S_t^2 \bigg)dt + \frac{\partial Y_t}{\partial S_t}\sigma S_t \ dW_t $$

Consider a portfolio \Pi is constructed with (1) short one derivative, and (2) long some fraction of stocks, \Delta, such that the portfolio is risk natural. (\Delta = \frac{\partial Y}{\partial S})

$$ \Pi_t = -Y +\Delta \ S_t $$

Differentiate it,

$$ d\Pi_t = -dY_t +\frac{dY}{dS}dS_t $$

Subtitute dY_t and dS_t into the above equation, we would then get the stochastic process of portfolio, by Ito’s Lemma.

$$ d\Pi_t =-\bigg( \frac{\partial Y}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2 Y}{\partial S^2} \sigma^2 S_t^2 \bigg) dt $$

The diffusion term dW_t disappears, and that means the portfolio is riskless during the interval dt. Under a no arbitrage assumption, this portfolio can only earn the riskless return, r.

$$ d\Pi_t =r\Pi_t \ dt $$

  • Subtitute d\Pi_t and \Pi_t into, we would get the Partial Differential Equation (PDE) / Black-Scholes equation,

$$ – \bigg( \frac{\partial Y}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2 Y}{\partial S^2} \sigma^2 S_t^2 \bigg) dt = r\bigg(- Y_t + \frac{\partial Y}{\partial S}S_t \bigg)dt $$

$$ rY_t = \frac{\partial Y}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2 Y}{\partial S^2} \sigma^2 S_t^2 + \frac{\partial Y}{\partial S}S_t $$

Then, we guess (where U(.) is a function of S_t at time t=T),

$$ Y_t = e^{-r(T-t)} U(S_T) $$

For a European call with strike price, K, U(S_T) would be the payoff at maturity,

$$ U(S_T) = max( S – K , 0 ) $$

Finally, through a series of process to find a specific solution of the PDE, we can solve the value of call, (\Phi(\cdot) is the cumulative standard normal distribtion)

$$ c = S_t\Phi(d_1) – K e^{-r (T-t)}\Phi(d_2) $$

with,

$$ d_1 =\frac{ log(S_t/K) + (r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)}{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}} $$

$$ d_1 = \sigma \sqrt{T-t} $$

Why do Banks run?

Assumption

Entrepreneurs borrow from banks to invest in long-term projects. Banks themselves borrow from risk-averse households, who receive endowments every period. Households deposit their initial endowment in banks in return for demandable deposit claims. There is no uncertainty initially about the average quality of a bank’s projects in our model, so the bank’s asset side is not the source of the problem. However, there is uncertainty about household endowments (or equivalently, incomes) over time.

Process

Firstly, households deposit their initial endowments and have an unexpectedly high need to withdraw deposits.

Anticipated prosperity, as well as current adversity, can increase current household demand for consumption goods substantially.

As households withdraw deposits to satisfy consumption needs, banks will have to call in loans to long gestation projects in order to generate the resources to pay them. The real interest rate will rise to equate the household demand for consumption goods and the supply of these goods from terminated projects.

Results

Thus greater consumption demand will lead to higher real rates and more projects being terminated, as well as lower bank net worth. This last effect is because the bank’s loans pay off only in the long run, and thus fall in value as real interest rates rise, while the bank’s liabilities, that is demandable deposits, do not fall in value.

$$Asset = Liability + Equity$$

in the balance sheet, so as to banks. However, the difference is that banks’ assets are loans and liabilities are deposits from households. If the real interest rate increases, which conveys the increase in the discount rate, then the value of assets for banks would decrease (,by the present value of future cash flows). Liability (debts) keeps constant, then the equity of banks is destroyed.

Eventually, if rates rise enough, the bank may have negative net worth and experience runs, which are destructive of value because all manner of projects, including those viable at prevailing interest rates, are terminated.

Solution

How can this tendency towards banking sector fragility be mitigated?

  1. Capital Structure of Banks

One possibility is to alter the structure of banks. Long-term loans’ value is more volatile if the real interest rate fluctuates.

If banks financed themselves with long-term liabilities (in part我国政策行if the bank finances through long-term loans, that means A=D+E, `D is also volatile to the real interest rate changes, and moves in the similar direction as Asset) that fell in value as real interest rates rose, banks would be doubly stable. The bank hedge itself, hedging the assets by bank debts.

Deposits from households do not make banks stable, compared with financing through bank loans, because deposits could be withdrawn.

The authors stated that competition that banks strive for efficiency determines the capital structure of banks. I personally do not understand that idea, so I will leave it here.

P.S.

Diamond and Rajan (2001) 中指出,银行,作为金融中介,的功能是有human capital能量化或者保证depositors withdraw时 borrower能提供足够的liquidity还给lender (depositor)的问题。

  • 2. Government Intervention

The government may have to intervene to pull the economy or consumption back into place. A typical way of doing so is through lower the interest rate.

The paper states that, reducing interest rates drastically when the financial sector is in trouble, but not raising them quickly as the sector recovers could create incentives for banks to seek out more illiquidity than good for the system. Such incentives may have to be offset by raising rates in normal times more than strictly warranted by macroeconomic conditions.

Put differently, reduce in interest rates could encourage banks to increase leverage or fund even more illiquid projects up front. This could make all parties worse off.

Reference

Diamond, D. and Rajan, R. (2009) (w15197) Illiquidity and Interest Rate Policy. Cambridge, MA: National Bureau of Economic Research DOI: 10.3386/w15197.